Derm In-Review

Axillae Lesions – Friday Pop Quiz 1/19/2024

A 38-year-old woman with morbid obesity and major depressive disorder presents for evaluation of lesions on her axillae. Previously, the patient has used topical benzoyl peroxide and has received triamcinolone injections to affected areas with minimal improvement. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of the patient?

A. Admit to hospital for ertapenem

B. Apply topical clindamycin to affected areas

C. Initiate weekly adalimumab therapy

D. Recommend weight loss

E. Start apremilast twice daily

To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.