Friday Pop Quiz 1/26/2024

A 34-year-old man with no past medical conditions presents with lesions as shown. Of the following, what is the most likely causative agent?

A. Aspergillus flavus

B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Klebsiella

E. Proteus

To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.