Hypertension – Friday Pop Quiz 9/29/2023

A 44-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and major depressive disorder presents to the office with the eruption shown for several months. The lesions are also all across the patient’s back and have not resolved with twice-daily clobetasol 0.05% ointment application for 2 months. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Intralesional triamcinolone

B. Narrowband UVB

C. Oral cyclosporine

D. Oral doxycycline

E. Oral terbinafine

To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here


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