Friday Pop Quiz 1/26/2024
208032080320803
A 34-year-old man with no past medical conditions presents with lesions as shown. Of the following, what is the most likely causative agent?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella
E. Proteus
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. …
A 34-year-old man with no past medical conditions presents with lesions as shown. Of the following, what is the most likely causative agent?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella
E. Proteus
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here. … 
These lesions can occur with which of the following?
A. Morphea
B. Leprosy
C. Erythema nodosum
D. Sarcoid
E. Pregnancy
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the office for 6 months of lesions as shown on her knees and elbows. Treatment is initiated, and three weeks later, the patient presents to the emergency department with fatigue, headache, and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Initiate methylene blue therapy
B. Obtain chest x-ray
C. P … 
A butcher presents with the following lesions. What is the most likely cause?
A. HPV 3
B. HPV 7
C. HPV 13
D. HPV 27
E. HPV 32
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
Brought to you by our brand partner Derm In-Review. A product of SanovaWorks.
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This baby does not have any systemic symptoms and these red-brown skin lesions heal on their own. What would this lesion stain positively with?
A. CD68
B. VVG
C. Thioflavin T
D. CD4
E. Langerin
To find out the correct answer and read the explanation, click here.
Brought to you by our brand partner Derm In-Review. A product of SanovaWorks.
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